That just sounds like the term "unwilling" is to be arbitrarily applied when the ICC doesn't like the national court's decision.

If Israeli courts give clearance to conduct that violates IHL, then that is certainly an unwillingness to enforce said laws.

If Israeli courts seriously and in good faith reviews the conduct and find it lawful, then it’s simply a disagreement between two courts.

Does the fact that the ICC disagrees with the Israeli courts mean the ICC is correct?